watson
02-20-2007, 05:38 PM
HI everyone, thought I'd take a break from just trying to follow the evidence wherever it leads (yes I know, but I think I do), and look at some of the pet theories (I call them, case myths) media, and people have made up in this case over the years, and see if anyone wants to explain or convince us of them, if they can, or expose them as myths that lead us all astray.
Myth #2....A pedophile did it.
Source....The media early on, before all the facts were in, John Ramsey's team in later years.
Has it been 'proved' that a pedophile did it?
Answer....No...never.
Is there any indication a pedophile 'might' have been involved?
Answer....Depending on your point of view, very little or none at all. All we've got is a minor sexual assault 'at or near' the time of death, where the victim was penetrated by a finger or finger like object, either by a hand slid down inside her pants, or her pants were pulled down, then put back in place. There was no other evidence of sexual contact, and yes, no one knows that the victim did not penetrate herself 'near' the time of death, or earlier that day. That's it. End of story. That's the sum basis of the pedophile did it myth. Am I correct? That's all the ammo people who 'buy' this myth have on their side, right?
What about the other side?
Is there any indication a pedophile was NOT involved?
Answer....Yes, 3 major things.
1.) In the killers 3 page letter, he 'never' mentioned the victims name once. He 'never' mentioned sex or lust, never mentioned the victim 'at all' except as a possession of John Ramsey's. From the writings of real pedophiles (Carr from Thailand comes to mind) we all know these freaks are totally obssessed with their victims, can't help but refer to them as 'love'/ sex, and lust objects. The fact this killer wrote 3 pages 'during' the crime and never mentioned anything even close to sex, lust, 'love' or 'even her name, indicates no way a pedophile involved. 2.) The sexual assault in this case was very minor, it can't even be ruled out that it was not self inflicted. If a pedophile did it, why didn't he sexually assault more? He had the opportunity, the time, as a pedophile 'sex' with the victim was the whole point. The fact the victim wasn't raped, sodomized, found nude, and not otherwise sexually assaulted indicates, the killer was not a lust driven pedophile, but a casual molester at best. 3.) There was a demand for money and supposed kidnapping involved. Pedophiles don't usually grab their lust object then write a kidnapping letter, and offer to sell that 'object' back. In the very rare cases that's happened, the pedophile actually TOOK the victim and ACTUALLY tried to collect the money. Given how rare a pedophile abduction for money is, and since the killer never took the victim, nor even 'tried' to collect the money, a pedophile for profit can be ruled out too.
So, there you have it. No 'proof' ever that a pedophile did this. Only the 1 slight indication (of the minor sexual assault) that a pedophile 'could' even 'possibly' be involved, and 3 good reasons to rule out pedophile involvement. So, if all this is correct, why does this myth persist? Can't it be rejected as just a myth?
Myth #2....A pedophile did it.
Source....The media early on, before all the facts were in, John Ramsey's team in later years.
Has it been 'proved' that a pedophile did it?
Answer....No...never.
Is there any indication a pedophile 'might' have been involved?
Answer....Depending on your point of view, very little or none at all. All we've got is a minor sexual assault 'at or near' the time of death, where the victim was penetrated by a finger or finger like object, either by a hand slid down inside her pants, or her pants were pulled down, then put back in place. There was no other evidence of sexual contact, and yes, no one knows that the victim did not penetrate herself 'near' the time of death, or earlier that day. That's it. End of story. That's the sum basis of the pedophile did it myth. Am I correct? That's all the ammo people who 'buy' this myth have on their side, right?
What about the other side?
Is there any indication a pedophile was NOT involved?
Answer....Yes, 3 major things.
1.) In the killers 3 page letter, he 'never' mentioned the victims name once. He 'never' mentioned sex or lust, never mentioned the victim 'at all' except as a possession of John Ramsey's. From the writings of real pedophiles (Carr from Thailand comes to mind) we all know these freaks are totally obssessed with their victims, can't help but refer to them as 'love'/ sex, and lust objects. The fact this killer wrote 3 pages 'during' the crime and never mentioned anything even close to sex, lust, 'love' or 'even her name, indicates no way a pedophile involved. 2.) The sexual assault in this case was very minor, it can't even be ruled out that it was not self inflicted. If a pedophile did it, why didn't he sexually assault more? He had the opportunity, the time, as a pedophile 'sex' with the victim was the whole point. The fact the victim wasn't raped, sodomized, found nude, and not otherwise sexually assaulted indicates, the killer was not a lust driven pedophile, but a casual molester at best. 3.) There was a demand for money and supposed kidnapping involved. Pedophiles don't usually grab their lust object then write a kidnapping letter, and offer to sell that 'object' back. In the very rare cases that's happened, the pedophile actually TOOK the victim and ACTUALLY tried to collect the money. Given how rare a pedophile abduction for money is, and since the killer never took the victim, nor even 'tried' to collect the money, a pedophile for profit can be ruled out too.
So, there you have it. No 'proof' ever that a pedophile did this. Only the 1 slight indication (of the minor sexual assault) that a pedophile 'could' even 'possibly' be involved, and 3 good reasons to rule out pedophile involvement. So, if all this is correct, why does this myth persist? Can't it be rejected as just a myth?